Marking Scheme
Questions Q.1 – Q.25 carry 1mark each. Questions Q.26 – Q.55 carry 2marks each.
Questions Q.56 – Q.60 carry 1mark each, and questions Q.61 – Q.65 carry 2marks each.
For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative marking for questions of numerical answer type.
Q.1 In case of residential apartments, the effective floor area available for use within an apartment, is known as
(A) Carpet Area (B) Built-up Area (C) Plinth Area (D) Super Built-up Area
Notes: Carpet area is the actual usable area of an apartment, office unit, showroom, etc minus wall thickness. Carpet area is the area enclosed within the walls, actual area to lay the carpet. This area does not include the thickness of the inner walls.
Built-up area is the carpet area plus the thickness of outer walls and the balcony.
Super built-up area is the built up area plus proportionate area of common areas such as the lobby, lifts shaft, stairs, etc.
Plinth Area is the entire carpet area along with the thickness of the external walls of the apartment. It obviously includes the thickness of the internal walls and the columns, if any, lying within the four walls of an apartment.
Answer (A)
Q.2 Star Rating of an Air Conditioner is determined by its
(A) Power Consumption (B) Energy Efficiency Ratio (C) Cooling Capacity (D) Power of Compressor
Notes: Star rating is a system initiated by BEE (Bureau of Energy Efficiency) India to determine the energy efficiency of an electronic product for home use like window and split air-conditioners and other appliances.
Depending on their energy efficiency they are rated on a scale of 1 – 5 and indicated by starts for easy understanding. Higher the number of stars, better is the energy efficiency of an air conditioner.
The energy efficiency of an AC depends on two factors: Cooling capacity (in BTU) and Power consumption (in Watts)
The cooling capacity of one ton AC should be 12000 BTU, 1.5 ton AC 18000 BTU. Some companies rate their air conditioners as 1 ton but actually their cooling capacity is less than 12000 BTU. SO the BEE has brought into force star rating system so that the manufacturers cannot misguide the consumers.
Star rating is based upon the EER of an AC. EER is cooling capacity divided by power consumed. To calculate EER in watts BTU needs to be converted into watts. 12000 BTU is equal to 3517 watts or 1BTU = 0.2937 Watts or one ton = 3517 watts
While it is important to choose an AC with higher star rating, it is equally important not to compromise on the cooling capacity, which is the primary function of an AC.
Answer (B)
Q.3 V7 concept given by Le Corbusier refers to
(A) Neighbourhood Planning (B) Housing Typologies (C) Architecture Design Principle (D) Hierarchy of Roads
Notes: The most significant role played by Le Corbusier in Chandigarh was in conceiving the city's present urban form. It is the well-ordered matrix of his generic ‘neighbourhood unit' and the hierarchical circulation pattern of his ‘7Vs' that has given Chandigarh its distinctive character. The Matrix comprises a regular grid of the fast traffic V3 roads which define each neighbourhood unit, the ‘Sector'. The Sector itself was conceived as a self-sufficient and - in a radical departure from other precedents and contemporarous concepts - a completely introverted unit, but was connected with the adjoining ones through its V4 - the shopping street, as well as the bands of open space that cut across in the opposite direction. Day-to-day facilities for shopping, healthcare, recreation and the like were arrayed along the V4 - all on the shady side. The vertical green belts, with the pedestrian V7, contained sites for schools and sports activities.
Answer (D)
Q.4 In AUTOCAD, a line of infinite length in the direction defined by starting point and through point,is known as
(A) RAY (B) LINE (C) PLINE (D) XLINE
Answer (A)
Q.5 Orbit Tower built at the London Olympic Park has been designed by
(A) Foster & Partners (B) Anish Kapoor & Cecil Balmond (C) Zaha Hadid & Antony Gormley (D) Richard Rogers & Renzo Piano
Notes: Orbit Tower represents a radical advance in the architectural field of combining sculpture and structural engineering, and that it combines both stability and instability in a work that visitors can engage with and experience via an incorporated spiral walkway. It has been both praised and criticised for its bold design. It has also been criticised as a vanity project, of questionable lasting use or merit as a public art project.
Answer(B)
Q.6 As per National Building Code 2005, the minimum size of a habitable room in m2 is
(A) 9.5 (B) 10.5 (C) 11.5 (D) 12.5
Notes:As per National Building Code of India - ceiling of a habitable room must be at a minimum of 2.75 m [9 ft] above floor.
Answer (A)
Q.7 The urban form of Srirangam town in Tamil Nadu refers to
(A) Dandaka (B) Swastika (C) Nandyavarta (D) Sarvotabhadra
Answer (D)
Q.8 PMGSY, a programme of Government of India, deals with
(A) Urban Employment Generation (B) Rural Employment Generation (C) Rural Electrification (D) Rural Road Development
Notes:
- Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on 25th December 2000.
- It is a nationwide plan in India to provide good all-weather road connectivity to unconnected villages of more than 500 persons in the rural areas (250 persons in the hilly and desert areas).
- It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
- Allocations under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) increased by 59 per to Rs.12,000 crore in the Union Budget 2009-10.
Answer (D)
Q.9 Beam or lowest division of the entablature which extends from column to column, is known as
(A) Arabesque (B) Arcade (C) Architrave (D) Arbour
Answer (C)
Q.10 The information that is NOT essential to be submitted for sanction of any building plan is
(A) Site Plan (B) Floor Plans (C) Title Deed (D) Land Cost
Answer (D)
Q.11 The tendency of an ecosystem to maintain its balance by regulatory mechanisms when disrupted, is known as
(A) Homeostasis (B) Entropy (C) Succession (D) Evolution
Notes:Homeostasis is the property of a system that regulates its internal environment and tends to maintain a stable, relatively constant condition of properties such as temperature or pH. It can be either an open or closed system. In simple terms, it is a process in which the body's internal environment is kept stable.Entropy, a term used in Thermodynamics, is a measure of the "disorder" of a system.
When a system receives an amount of energy q at a constant temperature, T, the entropy increase DS is defined by the following equation. DS = q / T
It is very interesting to compare the behavior of entropy compared to energy. Unlike energy, entropy can be created (but not generally destroyed). In fact, your body is creating some right now as it generates heat. One of the reasons that your body temperature has to be higher than the surrounding air, or that you have to sweat off water if it isn't, is that you have to get rid of the extra entropy (otherwise, you would become disorganized and eventually die). The energy that your warm body radiates carries away the extra entropy. It does this because losing this energy decreases the number of microscopic states that the atoms and molecules of your body can be in.
Succession : The progressive replacement of one dominant type of species or community by another in an ecosystem until a stable climax community is established.
Evolution is the change in the inherited characteristics of biological populations over successive generations.
Answer(A)
Q.12 Gantt Chart DOES NOT provide information about
(A) List of Jobs (B) Duration of Jobs (C) Interdependency of Jobs (D) Progress of Work
A Gantt chart is a type of bar chart, developed by Henry Gantt , that illustrates a project schedule. Gantt charts illustrate the start and finish dates of the terminal elements and summary elements of a project. Terminal elements and summary elements comprise the work breakdown structure of the project.
Answer (C)
Q.13 If threshold of hearing has a sound level of zero decibels and the sound level in a broadcasting studio is 100 times the threshold of hearing, its value in decibels would be
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 100
Notes: dB=10log(100I/I) =20
Answer(C)
Q.14 The width to height ratio of the front facade of Parthenon (without the pediment) is
(A) 9:4 (B) 4:9 (C) 1:1.618 (D) 1.618:1
Answer(A)
Q.15 The face of an Icosahedron is
(A) Equilateral Triangle (B) Isosceles Triangle (C) Square (D) Pentagon
Answer (A)
Q.16 The term ‘Zeitgist’, used in contemporary architecture, refers to
(A) Iconicity (B) Spirit of Times (C) Kinesthetics (D) Semantic Associations
Notes: German words zeit meaning `time' and geist meaning `spirit'
Answer (B)
Q.17 Alhambra, a UNESCO world heritage site, is classified as an example of
(A) Moorish Architecture (B) Mudejar Architecture
(C) Mozarabic Architecture (D) Tudor Architecture
Notes: Moorish architecture is a variation of Islamic architecture. There are many motifs, or repeated patterns, in Moorish architecture. This photo gallery illustrates just a few. The first slide gives an overview of the motifs: different styles of arches, calligraphy, vegetative design, and decorative tiles.
Moorish architecture is named after the Moors, North African people who conquered the Iberian Peninsula and many islands in the Western Mediterranean beginning in the 700s. The Moors controlled what is now Spain, Portugal, and the Pyrenees region of France for hundreds of years.
The Moors adopted Islamic architecture that developed in the Middle East. Although mosques are the most common examples of Moorish architecture, motifs spread to the design of homes and places of businesses. One of the most famous examples of Moorish architecture, the Mezquita or Grand Mosque of Cordoba, Spain, is today the region's Catholic cathedral.
Answer (A)
Q.18 Wythenshawe and Becontree are examples of
(A) Factory Town (B) Satellite Town
(C) Garden City (D) Vertical Neighborhood
Notes: Satellite towns, as the name implies, are planned communities outside of a large urban centre. Urban planners differentiate between suburbs and satellites by a simple method of access time to city centre to do daily business etc.
In short, Satellites are to suburbia as suburbia is to a city.
Answer (B)
Q.19 National Ceremonial Plaza at Thimpu in Bhutan has been designed by
(A) Christopher Charles Benninger (B) Charles Correa
(C) Karan Grover (D) I. M. Pei
Notes: Category: Civic and community
Location: Thimphu, Bhutan
Architect: Christopher Charles Benninger
Answer (A)
Q.20 Physiochemical process of removing micro-organisms, colour and turbidity from sullage and sewage is known as
(A) Putrefaction (B) Clarification
(C) Liquefaction (D) Infiltration
Notes:Putrefaction is one of seven stages in thedecomposition of the body of a dead animal. It can be viewed, in broad terms, as the decomposition of proteins.
Liquefaction is the process of liquefying or making liquid.
Clarification is a pretreatment process of effluent
Answer(All)
Q.21 Identify which is NOT a green building rating system
(A) LEED (B) CASBEE (C) ENERGY BUILD (D) BREEAM
Notes: CASBEE (Comprehensive Assessment System for Built Environment Efficiency) is thegreen building management system in Japan.
CASBEE was developed according to the following policies:
1) The system should be structured to award high assessments to superior buildings, thereby enhancing incentives to designers and others.
2) The assessment system should be as simple as possible.
3) The system should be applicable to buildings in a wide range of building types.
4) The system should take into consideration issues and problems peculiar to Japan and Asia.
LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) is an internationally recognized green building certification system, providing third-party verification that a building or community was designed and built using strategies aimed at improving performance across all the metrics that matter most: energy savings, water efficiency, CO2 emissions reduction, improved indoor environmental quality, and stewardship of resources and sensitivity to their impacts.
BREEAM (BRE Environmental Assessment Method) is the leading and most widely used environmental assessment method for buildings. It sets the standard for best practice in sustainable design and has become the de facto measure used to describe a building's environmental performance.BREEAM provides clients, developers, designers and others with:
- market recognition for low environmental impact buildings
- assurance that best environmental practice is incorporated into a building
- inspiration to find innovative solutions that minimise the environmental impact
- a benchmark that is higher than regulation
- a tool to help reduce running costs, improve working and living environments
- a standard that demonstrates progress towards corporate and organisational environmental objectives
BREEAM addresses wide-ranging environmental and sustainability issues and enables developers and designers to prove the environmental credentials of their buildings to planners and clients. It:
- uses a straightforward scoring system that is transparent, easy to understand and supported by evidence-based research
- has a positive influence on the design, construction and management of buildings
- sets and maintains a robust technical standard with rigorous quality assurance and certification
Answer (C)
Q.22 In 3DS Max, smooth 3D surfaces, by blending a series of selected shape curves, can be created by
(A) Lofting (B) Sweeping (C) Filleting (D) Extruding
Answer (A)
Q.23 Travel behavior characteristics of an urban area can be derived from
(A) Parking Survey (B) Demographic Survey
(C) Socio Economic Survey (D) Origin & Destination Survey
Notes:The O-D survey surveys households in order to obtain an accurate picture of all trips made by residents on an average of the type of transportation used.
The O-D survey is a source of reliable, up-to-date and complete information on urban transportation systems. It directly contributes to improving the planning of the urban environment and transportation systems, networks and modes.
Answer (D)
Q.24 In GIS, the set of entities representing vector data type is
(A) Point, Line, Polygon, TIN (B) Pixel, Voxel
(C) DEM, DSM, DTM (D) Coordinates, Elevation, Slope
Notes: GIS uses two types of data, vector and raster. Vector data comprise of point, line & curves where as raster data comprise of pixel etc.
Answer (A)
Q.25 A common flowering shrub is
(A) Tectona grandis (B) Mimusops elengi (C) Dalbergia sisso (D) Ixora coccinea
Common name: Teak, Sagun सगुन (Hindi), Chingsoo (Manipuri), Sagwan सागवान (Marathi), Saguna (Bengali), தேக்கு Tekku (Tamil)
Botanical name: Tectona grandis Family: Verbenaceae
A very popular timber tree, teak is native to India and Burma to Java. It is a deciduous tree attaining a very large size. However, in cities it might be seen on the roadside as a medium sized tree with large leaves. Teak is considered a good quality wood for furniture. Leaves of the tree are opposite, 30-60 cm long and 15-30 cm broad. The flowers come in large numbers in lax clusters at the end of branches. They are white and rather small - about 6 mm across. The fruit is about 15 mm across, spongy, enclosed in the persistent calyx. Flowers appear in monsoon, fruit ripens in winter. From November to January, the tree is leafless.
Common name: Spanish cherry • Hindi: Maulsari मौलसरी • Urdu: Kirakuli किराकुली • Manipuri: বোকুল লৈ Bokul lei • Tamil: மகிழம்பூ Magizhamboo • Malayalam: Ilanni • Bengali: Bakul • Marathi: Bakuli •Konkani: Omval • Kannada: Ranjal • Gujarati: Barsoli
Botanical name: Mimusops elengi Family: Sapotaceae (Mahua family)
Spanish cherry is a lovely green small tree of the Indian subcontinent. With its small shiny, thick, narrow, pointed leaves, straight trunk and spreading branches, it is a prized oranamental specimen because it provides a dense shade and during the months from March to July fills the night air with the delicious heady aroma of its tiny cream colored flowers. Flowers are small, star-shaped, yellowish white in color, with a crown rising from the center. Oval leaves, wavy at margin, about 5-16 cm and 3-7 cm wide. In the morning the fragrant flowers which so graciously scented their surroundings with their deep, rich, fragrance during the evening hours, fall to the ground. People love to collect them as they retain their odor for many days after they fall. They are offered in temples and shrines throughout the country. Appears in Indian mythology as Vakula - said to put forth blossoms when sprinkled with nectar from the mouth of lovely women. Fruits are eaten fresh.
Medicinal uses: Various parts of the tree have medicinal properties. It is used in the treatment and maintenance of oral hygiene. Rinsing mouth with water solution made with bakul helps in strengthening the teeth. It also prevents bad breath and helps keep the gums healthy.
Common name: Indian rosewood, Shisham शीशम (Hindi), Sissu (Manipuri), Sitral (Bengali)
Botanical name: Dalbergia sissoo Family: Fabaceae (pea family)
Shisham is a medium to large deciduous tree, native to India, with a light crown which reproduces by seeds and suckers. It can grow up to a maximum of 25 m in height and 2 to 3 m in diameter, but is usually smaller. Trunks are often crooked when grown in the open. Leaves are leathery, alternate, pinnately compound and about 15 cm long. Flowers are whitish to pink, fragrant, nearly sessile, up to 1.5 cm long and in dense clusters 5-10 cm in length. Pods are oblong, flat, thin, strap-like 4-8 cm long, 1 cm wide, and light brown. They contain 1-5 flat bean-shaped seeds 8-10 mm long. They have a long taproot and numerous surface roots which produce suckers. It is primarily found growing along river banks below 900 m elevation, but can range naturally up to 1300 m. Shisham is best known internationally as a premier timber species of the rosewood genus. However, Shisham is also an important fuel wood, shade, and shelter. With its multiple products, tolerance of light frosts and long dry seasons, this species deserves greater consideration for tree farming, reforestation and agro forestry applications. After teak, it is the most important cultivated timber tree in India, planted on roadsides, and as a shade tree for tea plantations.
Medicinal uses: Decoction of leaves is useful in gonorrhoea. Root is astringent. Wood is alterative, useful in leprosy, boils, eruptions and to allay vomiting.
Dalbergia sissoo is best known internationally as a premier timber species of the rosewood genus. However, sissoo is also an important fuelwood, shade, shelter and fodder tree. With its multiple products, tolerance of light frosts and long dry seasons, this species deserves greater consideration for agroforestry applications
Common name: Ixora, Jungle geranium, Rugmini रुग्मिनी (Hindi), Vedchi (Tamil), Rangan (Bengali), Chethi (Malayalam)
Botanical name: Ixora coccinea Family: Rubiaceae (coffee family)
Related to the gardenia and coffee plants, Ixora is said to be native to Asia and whose name derives from an Indian deity. There are about 400 species spread from Africa to India to Southern Asia. They differ in leaf size, plant height, flower size and flower color. This plant which blooms throughout the year is easy to grow. The flowers are found in a wide range of colours. Plants are of two types- large; with height around 1 meter and dwarf or miniature plants. Miniature ones have small leaves and are bushy. Ixora flowers last well when picked and put into a vase with water, making an attractive home arrangement. Ixora flower has traditionally been associated with enhanced sexuality and the re-kindling of passion.
Answer (D)
Q.26 The correct arrangement of the height of towers given below in descending order is
P. Burj Khalifa, Dubai
Q. Petronas Tower, Kuala Lumpur
R. Taipei 101, Taiwan
S. Bank of China Tower, Hong Kong
(A) P, Q, R, S (B) P, Q, S, R
(C) P, R, S, Q (D) P, R, Q, S
#
|
Building
|
City
|
Floors
|
Height
|
Year
|
1
| |
Burj Khalifa
|
Dubai
|
163
|
828 m
|
2010
|
2
| |
Makkah Clock Royal Tower [Abraj Al Bait]
|
Makkah
|
120
|
601 m
|
2012
|
3
| |
One World Trade Center [New World Trade Center]
|
New York City
|
104
|
541 m
|
2013
|
4
| |
Taipei 101
|
Taipei
|
101
|
509 m
|
2004
|
5
| |
Shanghai World Financial Center
|
Shanghai
|
101
|
492 m
|
2008
|
6
| |
International Commerce Centre [Union Square]
|
Hong Kong
|
118
|
484 m
|
2010
|
7
| |
Petronas Tower 1 [Petronas Towers]
|
Kuala Lumpur
|
88
|
452 m
|
1998
|
8
| |
Petronas Tower 2 [Petronas Towers]
|
Kuala Lumpur
|
88
|
452 m
|
1998
|
9
| |
Zifeng Tower
|
Nanjing
|
66
|
450 m
|
2010
|
10
| |
Willis Tower
|
Chicago
|
108
|
442 m
|
1974
|
Answer (D)
Q.27 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding architects in Group II
Group I
P. Khalsa Heritage Complex, Anandpur Sahib
Q. Lisbon Ismaili Centre, Lisbon
R. Neuroscience Centre, Cambridge, USA
S. National Centre for Performing Arts, Mumbai
Group II
1. Philip Johnson
2. Charles Correa
3. Raj Rewal
4. B. V. Doshi
5. Moshe Safdie
(A) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-4
International practice safdie architects has completed the 'khalsa heritage center' located in anandpur sahib, punjab, india.
slated to officially open this fall, the new museum complex is dedicated to the sikh people, commemorating 500 years of
history and the 300th anniversary of khalsa, scriptures written by the notable and final guru, gobind singh. overlooking the
adjacent town, the 75 acre site is divided by a ravine and interconnected with a pedestrian bridge.
the western half contains an entry piazza, auditorium, extensive library and interchangeable exhibition spaces. on the eastern
half of the site, galleries with permanent displays are housed within a series of five concave peaked roofs prefacing the dramatic
himalayan mountains. each gallery within the cluster represents one of the five virtues symbolic of the sikh faith. arcades of cast
in place concrete columns support the exterior faced with sand colored gwalior stone. the stainless steel roof acquires qualities
of the changing atmospheric conditions while water is directed through the ravine introducing a reflective water garden.
Answer (B)
Q.28 The term ‘Working head’ in context of water supply system means
(A) Height of a body of water falling freely under the force of gravity to acquire a certain velocity
(B) Rate of increase of velocity with respect to distance normal to the direction of flow
(C) Total head with deduction for velocity head or losses
(D) Difference between supply and delivery water levels
Note: Head is measured in meters. h is the pressure head in ρgh.
Answer(D)
Q.29 In a theoretical traffic flow relationship, as shown in the figure given below,
the slope of line OF joining point F on the curve and the origin O represents
(A) Corresponding space mean speed (B) Speed at maximum flow
(C) Travel time at corresponding density (D) Average headway at corresponding flow
Answer (A)
Q.30 Match the CAD terms in Group I with their corresponding functions in Group II
Group I
P. Tiled viewport
Q. UCS
R. DXF
S. Extrude
Group II
1. Boolean operator
2. Solid model
3. Coordinate system
4. Drawing interchange format
5. Model space
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-2, S-1
(C) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2 Answer (C)
Q.30 Match the CAD terms in Group I with their corresponding functions in Group II
Group I
P. Tiled viewport
Q. UCS
R. DXF
S. Extrude
Group II
1. Boolean operator
2. Solid model
3. Coordinate system
4. Drawing interchange format
5. Model space
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-5, R-2, S-1
(C) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2
Answer (C)
Q.31 Match the historic periods in Group I with their corresponding examples of towns in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Egyptian 1. Miletus
Q. Greek 2. Montpazier
R. Medieval 3. Kahun
S. Renaissance 4. Versailles
5. Timgad
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2
Answer (A)
Q.32 Match the components of an Indian urban land use map in Group I with their corresponding colour
codes as per UDPFI guidelines in Group II
Group I
P. Public / Semipublic
Q. Industry
R. Transportation
S. Commercial
Group II
1. Violet
2. Grey
3. Red
4. Blue
5. Yellow
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 Answer (D)
Q.33 Match the books in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II
Group I
P. Design of Cities
Q. On the Cultural Origin of Settlements
R. Urbanization and National Development
S. Planning Theory
Group II
1. Amos Rapoport
2. Leo Jacobson and Ved Prakash
3. Edmond Bacon
4. Christopher Alexander
5. Andreas Faludi
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 Answer (B)
Q.34 Match the temples in Group I with their corresponding historical periods in Group II
Group I
P. Vaikuntha Perumal Temple, Kancheepuram
Q. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
R. Durga Temple, Aihole
S. Brihadeshwara Temple, Thanjavur
Group II
1. Vijaynagara
2. Chalukya
3. Chola
4. Pandya
5. Pallava
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Answer (D)
Q.35 Match the theories in Group I with their corresponding propagators in Group II
Group I Group II
P. Choice theory of planning 1. Paul Davidoff and T.A. Reiner
Q. Connurbation 2. Patrick Geddes
R. Classical theory of land use 3. Homer Hoyt
S. Central place theory 4. Richard L. Meier
5. Walter Christaller
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2
A conurbation is a region comprising a number of cities, large towns, and other urban areas that, through population growth and physical expansion, have merged to form one continuous urban and industrially developed area. In most cases, a conurbation is a polycentric urban agglomeration, in which transportation has developed to link areas to create a single urban labour market or travel to work area.
The term "conurbation" was coined as a neologism in 1915 by Patrick Geddes in his book Cities In Evolution. He drew attention to the ability of the (then) new technology of electric power and motorised transport to allow cities to spread and agglomerate together, and gave as examples "Midlandton" in England, the Ruhrin Germany, Randstad in the Netherlands, New York-Boston in the United States,[2] the Greater Tokyo Area and Taiheiyō Belt in Japan and NCR of Delhi in India.
A conurbation can be confused with a metropolitan area. As the term is used in North America, a metropolitan area can be defined by the Census Bureau or it may consist of a central city and its suburbs, while a conurbation consists of adjacent metropolitan areas that are connected with one another by urbanization.Internationally, the term "urban agglomeration" is often used to convey a similar meaning to "conurbation".A conurbation should also be contrasted with a megalopolis, where the urban areas are close but not physically contiguous and where the merging of labour markets has not yet developed.
Central place theory is a geographical theory that seeks to explain the number, size and location of human settlements in an urban system. The theory was created by the German geographer Walter Christaller, who asserted that settlements simply functioned as 'central places' providing services to surrounding areas
Answer (all)
Q.36 Match the buildings in Group I with their corresponding structural feature in Group II
Group I
P. Yokohama Port Terminal, Yokohama
Q. Stanstead Airport, London
R. TWA Terminal, New York
S. Montreal Biosphere, Montreal
Group II
1. Geodesic Dome
2. Shell Structure
3. Space Frame
4. Folded Steel Plate Structure
5. Pneumatic Structure
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2 (D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
Answer (A)
Q.37 Match the Five Year Plans listed under Group I with their corresponding feature from Group II
Group I
P. First Five Year Plan
Q. Fourth Five Year Plan
R. Seventh Five Year Plan
S. Tenth Five Year Plan
Group II
1. Formation of HUDCO
2. Establishment of TCPO
3. Introduction of JNNURM
4. Announcement of National Housing Policy
5. Passing of Urban Land Ceiling and Regulation Act
(A) P-5,Q-2,R-4,S-3 (B) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
(C) P-4,Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-5 Answer (B)
Q.38 Match the landscape designers listed under Group I with their appropriate contribution from Group II
Group I
P. Lancelot ‘Capability’ Brown
Q. Andre Le Notre
R. Joseph Paxton
S. Frederick Law Olmstead
Group II
1. The Well-tempered Garden
2. Kew Garden
3. Versailles Garden
4. Crystal Palace
5. Central Park
(A) P-3,Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(C) P-3,Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-2,Q-3, R-4, S-5 Answer (D)
Q.39 Match the organism type from Group I with the appropriate example from Group II
Group I
P. Autotroph
Q. Heterotroph
R. Chemotroph
S. Saprophyte
Group II
1. Nitrifying Bacteria
2. Grasshopper
3. Grass
4. Vulture
5. Fungus
(A) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5
Notes: An autotroph("self-feeding", from the Greek autos "self" and trophe "nourishing") or "producer". Example- plants.
A heterotroph is an organism that cannot fix carbon and usesorganic carbon for growth. This contrasts with autotrophs, such as plants and algae, which can use energy from sunlight (photoautotrophs) or inorganic compounds (lithoautotrophs).
Chemotrophs are organisms that obtain energy by the oxidation of electron donors in their environments. These molecules can be organic (chemoorganotrophs) orinorganic (chemolithotrophs). The chemotroph designation is in contrast to phototrophs, which utilize solar energy. Chemotrophs can be either autotrophic orheterotrophic.
Saprotroph, a term used for organisms which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter.
Answer (D)
Q.40 Match the concepts in Group I with their corresponding authors in Group II
Group I
P. Proxemics Theory
Q. Serial Vision
R. Urban Imageability
S. Defensible Space
Group II
1. Gordon Cullen
2. Edward T. Hall
3. Oscar Newman
4. Paul Zucker
5. Kevin Lynch
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1 Answer (A)
Q.41 If the area coverage of one sprinkler is 20 m2, with a maximum and minimum spacing of 4.6 m and
1.8 m respectively, the minimum number of sprinklers required to be arranged in a regular
orthogonal grid to cover the area of a 15 m x 20 m room would be ____
Notes: For minimum no. of sprinklers, the spacing between them should be maximum. Let us assume, shape of area coverage of the sprinkler is square. As area coverage of one sprinkler is 20 m2, so the side of the square = square root 20= 4.47 which also satisfies 1.8 < 4.47< 4.6
Answer (20)
Q.42 If the slope of a hipped roof is 60 degrees and height of the roof is 3 m, span of the room, in m, would be _____
Notes:Span of the room = 2 x (3/tan60) ………….{answer!
Answer (3.4 to 3.6)
Q.43 Volume of coarse aggregate in m3 present in 1.0 m3 of 1 : 1.5 : 3 concrete mix made by volume
batching is _______.
Notes: 1:1.5:3, where 1 part of cement is to be mixed with 1.5 parts of sand and 3 parts of coarse aggregates. Water requirement for the mix would be less than 25 liters per bag of cement.
as 5.5 m3 of concrete mix has 3 m3 of coarse aggregate,
So, 1 m3 of concrete mix will have 3/5.5 m3 of coarse aggregate!
Answer (0.5 to 0.6)
Q.44 A tank of internal dimension 3 m x 5 m x 4 m (Length x Breadth x Height) has 200 mm thick brick
wall on all sides. Volume of brickwork in m3
would be _______.
Notes: internal dimension 3 m x 5 m x 4 m , external dimension 3.2 m x 5.2 m x 6.3 m
So, required volume= (3.2 m x 5.2 m x 6.3 m) – (3 m x 5 m x 4 m) ………….{answer!
Answer (13 to 14)
Q.45 Flux emitted from a 1cd light source in all directions, in lumens, would be _______.
Notes: 4Π
Answer(12 to 13)
Q.46 50 Hectare of residential sector has 65% buildable area. The FAR of the buildable area is 1.5.
Within the residential sector, 60% of dwelling units are of area 100 m2 each and 40% of the dwelling units are of area 80 m2
each. The gross residential density, in dwelling units per Hectare, would be _______.
Notes: Let, N= total no. of dwelling units. FAR=1.5 given.
So, total buildable area= 50Hectare X 65% X 1.5 FAR = (50 X 0.65 X 1.5) Hectare= (50 X 0.65 X 1.5 X 10000) m2
As per question, 0.6N X 100m2 + 0.4N X 80 m2 = total buildable area
So, 0.6N X 100m2 + 0.4N X 80 m2 = (50 X 0.65 X 1.5 X 10000) m2 …………{Find N}
The gross residential density, in dwelling units per Hectare= N/50=106 (answer)
Answer (105 to 107)
Q.47 In the given project network diagram, the total slack for job A in days would be
Notes: For activity F to start, activities (B+C) & (A+E) must been finished. As activities (B+C) takes 6 days to finish to start the activity F. Activities (A+E) takes 5 days to finish to start the activity F. Which implies that activity A can be delayed by 1 day without affecting the start of activity F. The delay by one day is actually slack.
Answer (1)
Common Data for Questions 48 and 49:
The scale of a contour map is 1:10,000 and the contour interval is 5 m. Distance between two given points
on the map is 2 cm and the elevation difference between the two given points is 10 m.
Q.48 The actual distance between the two given points in m would be
(A) 2 (B) 20 (C) 200 (D) 2000
Notes: 2cm in map = 2x20000cm in actual = 200m
10m is elevation difference (given)
Answer (C)
Q.49 The slope between two given points in percentage is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
Notes: In 200m in plan, there is elevation change in 10m. So, in 100m in plan, the change in elevation will be 5m (answer).
Answer (A)
Common Data for Questions 50 and 51:
A point load of 3kN acts at mid-span of a 4 m long cantilever beam as shown in figure below.
Q.50 Shearing force at free end in kN is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 12
Notes: obviously 0 as there is no mass in the free end to produce any shear!
Answer (A)
Q.51 Bending moment at mid-span in kNm is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
Notes: M=Fl= (3kN) x (2m)= 6kNm
Answer (D)
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53:
Cost of a new building is Rs 10,00,000 and its scrap value after 50 years is Rs. 1,00,000.
Using straight line method
Q.52 The annual depreciation of the building in Rs. would be
(A) 10,000 (B) 15,000 (C) 18,000 (D) 20,000
Notes: annual depreciation= 18000, so after 10 years the value will be depreciated by 10x18000=180000
So, the book value= 1000000-180000=820000
Answer (C)
Q.53 The book value after 10 years in Rs. would be
(A) 1,80,000 (B) 3,60,000 (C) 6,00,000 (D) 8,20,000
Notes: annual depreciation= 18000, so after 10 years the value will be depreciated by 10x18000=180000
So, the book value= 1000000-180000=820000
Answer (D)
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55:
A room of size 100 m2
is illuminated by 10 lamps of 40 W having a luminous efficacy of 50 lm/W.
Q.54 Total flux emitted by the lamps in lumens would be
(A) 2,000 (B) 5,000 (C) 10,000 (D) 20,000 Answer (D)
Q.55 If utilization factor is 0.5, at a working height of 90 cm above the floor level, the illumination in lux would be
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 1000 Answer (A)
Q.56 A number is as much greater than 75 as it is smaller than 117. The number is:
(A) 91 (B) 93 (C) 89 (D) 96
Notes: start from the given options!
Answer (D)
Q.57 The professor ordered to the students to go out of the class.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is grammatically incorrect?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV Answer (B)
Q.58 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below:
Primeval
(A) Modern (B) Historic (C) Primitive (D) Antique Answer (C)
Q.59 Friendship, no matter how _________it is, has its limitations.
(A) cordial
(B) intimate
(C) secret
(D) pleasant Answer (B)
Q.60 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
Medicine: Health
(A) Science: Experiment (B) Wealth: Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge (D) Money: Happiness Answer (C)
Q.61 X and Y are two positive real numbers such that 2X+Y≤ 6 and X+2Y≤8. For which of the
following values of (X,Y) the function f(X,Y)=3X +6Y will give maximum value?
(A) (4/3, 10/3)
(B) (8/3, 20/3)
(C) (8/3, 10/3)
(D) (4/3, 20/3)
Notes: for quick answer, put the values of X & Y one by one from the four given answers in 3X +6Y to give maximum value which must also satisfy 2X+Y≤ 6 and X+2Y≤8.
Answer (A)
Q.62 If |4X-7|=5 then the values of 2 |X| - |-X | is:
(A) 2, 1/3 (B) 1/2, 3 (C) 3/2, 9 (D) 2/3, 9
Notes: |4X-7|=5 => X= 3(when |4X-7| is +ve) & X=1/2 (if |4X-7| is -ve)
When, X=3, value of 2 |X| - |-X | is 3
When X=1/2 value of 2 |X| - |-X | is 1/2
Answer (B)
Q.63 Following table provides figures (in rupees) on annual expenditure of a firm for two years - 2010 and 2011.
In 2011, which of the following two categories have registered increase by same percentage?
(A) Raw material and Salary & wages
(B) Salary & wages and Advertising
(C) Power & fuel and Advertising
(D) Raw material and Research & Development Answer (D)
Q.64 A firm is selling its product at Rs. 60 per unit. The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and firm is
earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later, the total cost increased by 30%. By what percentage the price
should be increased to maintained the same profit level.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 30
Notes: Initial selling price= 60 (10, cost of production + 50, profit)
Cost is increased by 30% => 10+3=13 cost of production
So, new selling price= 60+3=63 (to maintain same level of profit)
The required %= (63/60)x100=105 => 5%
Answer (A)
Q.65 Abhishek is elder to Savar. Savar is younger to Anshul.
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above statements?
(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of the same age
(D) No conclusion follows Answer (D)
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER
